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I recently had an online consultation and was prescribed #60 1mg. Xanax. The directions indicate to take 1 mg. per day, however, I have always had to take 2 mg. I'm afraid if I ask for a re-fill too early, they might think I'm "double-dipping"? In essense, the doctor believed that this would last me 2 months - when, in fact, I'm nearly out of my meds. Does anyone know how long, after my script was filled, before you can obtain another script/re-fill? Thanks in advance.
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What constitutes "double-dipping"?
dman12
04/26/04 07:23 PM
Re: What constitutes "double-dipping"?
D2003
04/26/04 11:58 PM
Re: What constitutes "double-dipping"?
potatoboy99
04/26/04 08:55 PM
Re: What constitutes "double-dipping"?
dman12
05/01/04 01:20 PM
Re: What constitutes "double-dipping"?
toe
05/04/04 09:08 AM
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