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This is the first time I've posted. Please let me know if I've violated any protocols.
Padmakara's discussion of what it means when they refer to the base for a drug's potency makes sense. Let me know what you all think, but my take is in the USA, when they list a drug's potency as 10mg, they are not referring to the base.
Years ago my pharmacist friend gave me one of his old college textbooks The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics. It lists Dihydrocodeine as being between Codeine and Morphine in potency. It looks to be roughly equivalent to Hydrocodone in all properties. They have the doses of all the most common opioids given subcutaneously that produce the same analgesic effects as 10mg Morphine administered subcutaneously. So Morphine is the standard baseline from which all the others are compared. The dose listed for Dihydrocodeine is 60mg. For comparison, the dose for Oxycodone is 10-15mg and Codeine is 120mg. I don't know how
Quote:
same analgesic effects
translates into euphoria. Consider that fact that Aspirin is supposed to have strong analgesic effects. Also, the comparison is complicated by the fact that some opioids are more effective orally.
The withdrawal symptoms are listed as being between Morphine and Codeine, the same as what's listed for Hydrocodone. They list Oxycodone withdrawal symptoms as close to Morphine. Since everything else in this book matches my personal experience, I have no reason to doubt this assessment of Dihydrocodeine. It is a little dated (1980).
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DHC: Contugesic vs. What?
toe
09/27/03 02:52 AM
Re: DHC: Contugesic vs. What?
padmakara
09/27/03 01:39 PM
Re: DHC: Contugesic vs. What?
toe
09/27/03 04:47 PM
Re: DHC: Contugesic vs. What?
intrepid1
09/30/03 01:30 AM
Re: DHC: Contugesic vs. What?
prudence
09/28/03 09:35 AM
Re: DHC: Contugesic vs. What?
padmakara
09/28/03 09:55 AM
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