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Meds, Medical Conditions, and Treatment >> Meds, Medical Conditions, and Treatment

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buffalo124
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Reged: 09/18/02
Posts: 21
Question? What does C-III etc mean ?
      #125356 - 12/29/03 01:49 PM

I keep seeing references to things like it is a C-* class med and therefore you can't import, triplicate form etc.

I would apreciate a general description of this if you would be so kind ( and not from the FDA or D'E"A website).

Thanks for tolerating my ignorance


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Julz
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Reged: 11/17/03
Posts: 223
Loc: NJ Shore
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: buffalo124]
      #125368 - 12/29/03 03:06 PM

CI, CII, CIII are the different "class of drugs" that there are, the strongest/more potent being the smaller # (ClassI).
Class II drugs include: Oxycontin, Oxycodone, Percocet, Percodan. Class III include Hydrocodone, Tylenol with Codeine (all strengths), Lortab, to name a few.
Hope this answers your question.


Peace,
Julz

--------------------
Love never fails. 1Cor 13:8

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Miss_EttiKit
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Reged: 11/24/03
Posts: 68
Loc: Texas
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: buffalo124]
      #125369 - 12/29/03 03:09 PM

This refers to the DEA/FDA Schedule number of the particular drug.

Schedule I drugs are things that have no current, acceptable medical use. (Heroin is in this class)

Schedule II drugs are the ones that require triplicate forms (in most states). Oxycodone is in this class.

Schedule III drugs are things like Vicodin, Norco, Lortab, etc. These prescription drugs are the ones that a lot of us here are on, and are available through the online pharmacies that are being discussed in this forum.

Schedule IV drugs are much easier to obtain (usually). They are things like Darvon. I'm sorry, but I can't remember which class the benzo's (tranquilizers) are in.

Schedule V drugs - can't remember. My textbook is out in the storage room, and I don't feel like digging it out right now.

Hope this helps you a little. Anyone else - feel free to chime in here.


--------------------
"Ignorance in action is terrifying to behold!"


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buffalo124
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Reged: 09/18/02
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Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: Miss_EttiKit]
      #125372 - 12/29/03 03:17 PM

Thank you very much for your quick and extremely consice replies .

Your answers have clarified this for me as I am not very close to the U.S. at this time.

Will check PDR (Physician's Desk Reference).

Thanks again.


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potatoboy99
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Reged: 02/04/03
Posts: 1211
Loc: Deep North (East)
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: buffalo124]
      #125382 - 12/29/03 04:24 PM

Here is a link to the DEA SCHEDULES as they appear in the DB FAQ section.

Lots of people ask about the Schedules, buffalo124, and which drug is in which category. I always have to think twice (or three times) to remember that the information is right here on DB, a mouse click away!

Oh, and the benzos are C-IV, Miss Ettikit!


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bango
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Reged: 02/10/03
Posts: 187
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Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: potatoboy99]
      #125395 - 12/29/03 04:51 PM

most opiates with nothing else compunded with them (asprin etc) are CII (hydromprophone, pure codiene, dihydrocodiene, oxymorphone,pure hydrocodone,pethedine/meperidine, mehtadone etc.exceptions for the compounding rule include oxycodone and demoerol with phengran, for anything with it is still CII. all barbituates (secobarbital, pentobarbital, amobarbital, allobarbital, cylcobarbital etc) (*except fiorcet)are cII.also barb like substances (doriden, placidyl etc). all true amphetamines and ritalin (adderall, dexedrine, desoxyn etc) used in medecine are CII. CII will mean that the medecine does have accpetible use in medecine but generally reagrded as having a high potential for abuse therfore, it harder to get a script for them, they are more controlled and monitered by the gov and state, and less likely to be found on IOP's (excpet for codiene and dihydro and sometime phenbarbital) and impossible in OP's. CIII, a bit less abusable, include some opiate compounds like codiene with asprin, the all so overhyped vicoden, and all other hydro/ asprin like filler compounds. they are what you will mainly find through OP's, a bit harder through IOP's. CIV are supposed to be less abusable and include all benzos (temazepam, flunitrazepam, nitrazepam, triazolam, diazepam amd the all overhyped xanax.) very easy to find IOP, and usually as easy OP. doctor will still not be easily give them out. it is funny becasue despite schedule, doctors will give out vicoden before they would give out benzos (difference of medical use noted). all this applies to the US laws, but in general all countries thoug having diffeernt schedules, the hiearchy remains quite similar. individual states within the US might have different laws for specific drugs, when media craze hits a specific drug causes some igonorant polititian to think that they will protect what he/she thinks are ignorant people, and get some spotlight for her/himself. gee this is too lng now, sorry, but thats all.


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snickers
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Reged: 05/06/03
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Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: buffalo124]
      #125590 - 12/30/03 12:08 PM

Buffalo124,

To make the concept of schedule type medications simple, I'll provide the following analogy.

Schedule Medications are due to their strength, so to speak.
Therefore using an analogy:

Pure Grain Alcohol (PGA) = the strongest alcohol

it would be a schedule I medication

Wild Turkey 101proof alcohol (50% alcohol) = next to the strongest alcohol

it would be a schedule II medication

Wine or something just a little bit stronger, alcohol wise

it would be a schedule III medication

Beer very weak alcohol

it would be a schedule IV medication

Any other type of medication's are not really scheduled because they do not have the effect of alcohol.

Schedule medication's usually act on your brain, your Central Nervous System (CNS)

Therefore, anything that acts to drug you out, so to speak, is a schedule medication and depending upon on how strong it is depends upon how it is scheduled (I, II, III, IV)

Hope that makes it simple,

Snickers


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snickers
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Reged: 05/06/03
Posts: 227
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Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: Miss_EttiKit]
      #125599 - 12/30/03 12:43 PM

Miss_EttiKit,

Benzodiazepine's, for example, valium, is a C-IV

Snickers


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mpcagh
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Reged: 12/27/03
Posts: 130
Loc: California
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: snickers]
      #151201 - 03/28/04 03:41 PM

I like your analogy Snickers.........that is a very good way to understand all this schedule business.

--------------------
"There's a fine line between love and hate, and a mile full of lessons in between." William M. Siegel, Jr.


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Trampy
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Reged: 04/02/02
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Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: potatoboy99]
      #151223 - 03/28/04 06:34 PM

Quote:

Oh, and the benzos are C-IV...




... including fluntrazepam, BTW, which, thanks to the diligence of Roche lobbyists who don't want the world's #1 prescribed sleeping pill have its reputation tarnished any more than it already is, it remains a U.S. C-IV with the dubious distinction of being banned for import and any medical use (treating it as C-I), and imposing the incredibly harsh sentence for simple possession of three years in federal prison for "any amount." Yassir, simple possession of C-I heroin or LSD on a first-offense with no priors is just a federal misdemeanor with a maximum of one year, but Rohypnol can get you three years for having half a tablet of the world's most popular sleeping pill. So if you think the U.S. drug laws make sense, look up "cognitive dissonance." The schedule of a drug does not always correlate with the harshness of the penalties. A good example was just given.

Drug-by-drug penalties for various quantities are all spelled out in the federal sentencing guidelines and mandatory minimums, which the states generally don't follow. Unless the crime occured on federal property and the state has no jurisdiction, almost all small-time drug crimes are prosecuted in state court. A few states have extremely harsh drug-crime penalties; New York and Texas are the two biggies (literally).

Federal courts don't have the time or money to waste on misdemeanors like simple possession, so those cases are almost always disposed before trial or handed over to the state. State courts often base the crime's severity and any sentencing guidelines simply on the state's own drug schedules, which can be higher than the federal schedule. For example, carisoprodol is a C-IV in a few states, and ketamine was scheduled in over twenty states before it was federally scheduled (by an act of Congress, not by a rulemaking). Ted Kennedy was leading the charge on that one, and when his "date-rape" bills kept dying, he tried to get the Massachusetts legislature to make it a C-I. There doesn't seem to be any difference between the tweedle-dum and tweedle-dee political partys when it comes to drug laws.

Trampy

P.S. re "I would apreciate a general description of this if you would be so kind ( and not from the FDA or D'E"A website). Thanks for tolerating my ignorance"

Ignorance is better tolerated if someone tries to learn as much as they can. For someone who doesn't understand drug scheduling, i suggest they start with the DEA and FDA web sites, because they are factual and correct and often try to explain things in a simple way. They have lawyers check the facts on everything they have on their web sites, and although they may not tell you the whole story, i've never seen either agency post false information on their sites. It would be a total waste of time for anyone here to repeat the basic information that they make available.


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ken2
Journeyman


Reged: 01/30/04
Posts: 70
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: snickers]
      #151255 - 03/28/04 09:57 PM

Snickers, I think your analogy is not quite right. Schedule meds are not just by their strength. The main basis for scheduling -- and yes most of these are psychoactive substances, although some other drugs like anabolic steroids are scheuled -- is the potential for abuse.

Your example only applied to forms of alcohol. Scheduling addresses both CLASSES of drugs as well as STRENGTHS of them.

Schedule 1 drugs are essentially illegal -- no accepted medical use ; some may be used experimentally. I'm pretty sure that grain alcohol (100% pure alcohol) is legal; sometimes is used to make spiked punch drinks. Probably most alcoholic beverages would be schedule 4 drugs if they were regulated. None them would be schedule 1 or schedule 2 ; maybe hard liquor would be 3 and beer 4; but probably they'd all be schedule 4.

Schedule 2 drugs have a very high potential for abuse and addiction, and include psychostimulants (including amphetamine, cocaine, Ritalin), all pure potent narcotics (not Darvon, which is weak), and some narcotic combinations (Percocet). Schedule 3 drugs are mainly the potent narcotics combined with aspirin, Tylenol, etc ; because of the added ingredient they are considered harder to abuse, but still have a high risk of abuse and addiction. I'm not sure but I think that the anabolic steriods go under III.

Schedule 4 drugs have a lesser abuse potential, and include Valium and similar drugs ; and others. Most or all forms of alcohol would probably fall here, as I said above. But of course alcohol is not a controlled substance, as long as you're over 21.

Hope that helps.


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dhc_60
Member


Reged: 01/31/04
Posts: 177
Loc: mo.
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: ken2]
      #151270 - 03/29/04 12:42 AM

last week the history channel a very interesting series. i think it was called "hooked on drugs; and how they became illegal" something like that.
richard nixon starting scheduling drugs to try to stop the herion use that was happening in viet nam.
i think you can check it out @ their website.
@ one time every drug was legal.
ill take a "classic" coca cola please.

--------------------
everything is going according to plan... its just not my plan.


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mailkitty
Newbie


Reged: 05/18/02
Posts: 45
Re: Question? What does C-III etc mean ? [Re: buffalo124]
      #151273 - 03/29/04 01:27 AM

Hi.

I'd like to help you get through all this confusion. The DEA (which is Federal) classified drugs by their potential for addiction. C-I drugs are drugs which have no medical use ex. heroin, methamphetamine etc. C-II drugs have the most potential for physical addiction (and still have a medical use) ex. Percocet, Oxycontin, Demerol etc. C-III drugs have a high potential for psychological addiction ex. vicodin, didrex, oxandrin (anabolic steroid) etc. The addiction potential goes down until you get to OTC meds.
Further, and this is where there is more confusion, the DEA has a sort of separation from each state. That means that individual states can make its own laws stronger but not weaker than the Federal laws. Any pharmacy in any particular state has to conform to the laws which are the strictest. For example, Xanax is a DEA classified C-IV however, in New York, Xanax is a C-II so if you are a pharmacy in New York, you have to treat Xanax as if it were a C-II (the stricter law).

Hope that helps.

Lisa St.Peter, Owner
St.Peter's Apothecary


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